I had an argument with someone last night concerning baptism. Precisely, when babies die without baptism, either naturally, in a miscarriage, or violently as in an abortion; could there be in God's scheme of things, some argument that these babies received baptism of blood or desire?

Let me explain: In CCC#1261 the Church leaves up the salvation of these innocents to the discression of God. I was wondering in the case of a child who dies naturally and the parents had the firm intent of baptising the child but were not able to, would that possibly fall into baptism of desire? It may since the parents would have choosen baptism for the baby (if he had lived) because the baby could not decide on his own, and thus in some way stand in place of the child's consent....to be contimued.

-- Joseph Carl Biltz (jcbiltz@canoemail.com), January 15, 2003

Answers

[This thread was continued (with responses) here.]

-- J. F. Gecik (jfgecik@hotmail.com), March 02, 2003.